42 is 1.6% of?
- A1050
- B5250
- C7875
- D2625
Solution & Step-by-step Explanation
Let the required number be y.
According to the problem statement:
1.6% of y=42
Converting the percentage to a fraction:
100
1.6
×y=42
1000
16
×y=42
Solving for y:
y=
16
42×1000
y=
16
42000
y=2625
Therefore, 42 is 1.6% of 2625.
According to the problem statement:
1.6% of y=42
Converting the percentage to a fraction:
100
1.6
×y=42
1000
16
×y=42
Solving for y:
y=
16
42×1000
y=
16
42000
y=2625
Therefore, 42 is 1.6% of 2625.